Slightly tongue in cheek, but I think a fair question none the less.

The logic goes that if man works and generates income to support his family and his wife sacrifices her earning potential to raise the kids and maintain home. He brings in income. She does the housework. Both contribute equally to the family.

So when a No Fault Divorce occurs, this dynamic no longer applies.

The woman requests the court orders the man to continue to provide his half of the deal, in the form of alimony, arguing that she's entitled to continue to receive some benefit for her sacrifice.

If we take that argument as true, then can't we also argue that the man has also given up something? Surely if his wife also worked he'd have more free time to spend with his kids or learn how to create a well maintained household. He's given up some of the peak learning years of his adulthood to support this woman and their children, surely he is also entitled to some continued benefit for his sacrifice.