Hey folks.

So I was having a debate with my wife on how women are far more advantaged than she thinks.

I used the example of criminal sentencing being more lenient for women.

She retorted with, but the sentence would have been most likely handed down by a man. I responded by saying that's ultimately irelavent, as the woman receiving the sentence received a lower one BECAUSE she is female. It doesn't matter that a man may have handed her a lighter sentence.

Is my answer correct enough, or is there another answer to this I could respond with?

Cheers.