Disclaimer: I am not a Muslim myself, but I am a religious man with an interest in the red pill as it pertains to marriage. Though I'm not a Muslim, I have an interest in the religion and it's traditions, and I believe I have a slightly higher than average knowledge of it by Westerner standards. I also would like to apologise beforehand for any ignorance or generalisations.
One one hand, there is a perception that Muslims place a high value on virginity before marriage, particularly on the part of the bride. However, purely in my own anecdotal experience of knowing a lot of Muslims, in practice it seems that divorce is fairly commonplace and it's not at all taboo to remarry, like it would be for the Orthodox or Roman Catholics. Even if there are children from the previous marriage.
Which leads me to my question, which is: didn't Muhammad almost exclusively marry divorcés and widows (with the exception of Aisha and maybe Mariam)? This may be to his credit, as it would imply a dispassion towards dunya, but it seems that he did not place a great deal of emphasis on virginity.
From lurking this sub, I can see that in general you guys do value virginity, and I believe that you have good reasons for doing so. But how do you square that with your obligation to emulate your prophet as closely as possible?
