I've heard varying theories and takes on this that each have their own neat little set of implications

  1. There is no actual disparity; it's a perceived disparity because men are just misunderstanding what women actually mean
  2. The disparity exists because they'd feel uncomfortable stating their real preferences (likely due to reasons involving not wanting to offend someone)
  3. The disparity exists because it's a cheap way to virtue signal
  4. The disparity exists because they're (literally) unaware of what they respond positively too
  5. An interesting one I've heard is: When they think up standards for a man, they're likely thinking of the average Joe that all these rules would apply to, but a guy with tons of sexual magnetism can easily bypass these standards for obvious reasons.
    Kind of like if a company gave 30 minute breaks but a handful of extremely efficient employees came along and could get their work done fast enough that they could take hour long breaks and be just fine, so the company decided let him.
  6. Another interesting one: When she SAYS she likes XYZ, she's coming from a different immediate state of mind than in the moment where a guy is causing her to have the internal attraction reactions. Sort of like how you can say that you're peaceful and stuff, but then if someone angered you to no end, laying into them verbally or physically wouldn't exactly sound like a bad idea

Which one are you guys leaning toward and why? Personally I would say number 6 makes a compelling case, but I think number 4 holds weight as well.