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LeWhisp Archive

View 0 posts and 3 comments by LeWhisp on TheRedPill subreddit and various other subreddits related to The Red Pill community.
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1

2006 must be the fraud act then, sorry. I studied them both at the same time but that was a while ago. It does seem to be a bit uneven. I would love to know the reasoning behind it.
/r/MensRights10/05/13 07:31 PM
1

I didn't know it included a constructed penis, thanks for the input. I agree with you that the definition would be better if it was a simple 'sex without consent', but they went down a very specific route when they wrote the Sexual Offenses Act 2006 (penis in the mouth, vagina or anus without consent). It's written very clear (which helps when it comes to court) but I think they missed an opportunity. I would like to know if a woman has sex with a man who doesn't consent, would that would be sex…
/r/MensRights10/05/13 02:15 PM
10

I guess it depends on how they define rape. If they are basing it in the legal definition of rape then that varies from country to country. In the UK only a man can rape (according to the law) as it requires a penis, but in other parts of the world rape is a much broader term. It would be a better definition if it made that clear.
/r/MensRights10/05/13 01:27 PM
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