Keep in mind that it's not my intention to express whether I'm for or against the definition. I'm simply interpreting it. Perhaps I'm interpreting it wrong?

I found that the new definition of rape is: “The penetration, no matter how slight, of the vagina or anus with any body part or object, or oral penetration by a sex organ of another person, without the consent of the victim.”

Going by that I'd say no and I'm going to explain why I think so.

A woman can penetrate herself with a non-consenting man's penis. There's nothing in there that says the victim can't be either. In fact it doesn't mention gender at all. The victim is the one who's not consented to the sexual act as described.