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Why?

REDDEAT1

July 2, 2020

71 upvotes

/r/MGTOW

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Post Information

Title	Why?
Author	REDDEAT1
Upvotes	71
Comments	14
Date	July 2, 2020 7:43 PM UTC (6 years ago)
Subreddit	Posted in /r/MGTOW
Original Link	https://old.reddit.com/r/MGTOW/comments/hk3vh3/why/
Archive Link	https://theredarchive.com/r/MGTOW/why.703349 https://theredarchive.com/post/703349

Comments

[–]Dadeh17 points18 points19 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

[–]Beyondthet2 points3 points4 points 6 years ago (12 children) | Copy Link

[–]REDDEAT1[S] 2 points3 points4 points 6 years ago* (11 children) | Copy Link

[–]Beyondthet0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (10 children) | Copy Link

[–]REDDEAT1[S] 2 points3 points4 points 6 years ago* (0 children) | Copy Link

I stand corrected\*

"in formal English, of he, him or his as a gender-neutral pronoun has traditionally been considered grammatically correct."

^{An early example of prescribing the use of} ^he ^{to refer to a person of unknown gender is Anne Fisher's 1745 grammar book} ^{A New Grammar}^.\28] Older editions of Fowler also took this view.[29])

The customer brought his purchases to the cashier for checkout.

In a supermarket, a customer can buy anything he needs.

When a customer argues, always agree with him*.*

While the use, in formal English, of he, him or his as a gender-neutral pronoun has traditionally been considered grammatically correct, such use may also be considered to be a violation of gender agreement.

"It may be that forms of the pronoun he had been used for both sexes during the Middle English and Modern English periods. "There was rather an extended period of time in the history of the English language when the choice of a supposedly masculine personal pronoun (him) said nothing about the gender or sex of the referent."

Then the article goes on to discuss how it's considered abhorrent in modern day language because of feminism and the whole LGBT pronouna butchering of the English language.

usually masculine, pronoun is sometimes used with a purported gender-neutral meaning;[3] such use of he was common in formal English between the 1700s and the latter half of the 20th century (though some regard it as outmoded[4] or sexist[5])

Civilised Discord

[–]washingtonpanther1 point2 points3 points 6 years ago (6 children) | Copy Link

[–]Beyondthet2 points3 points4 points 6 years ago (5 children) | Copy Link

[–]washingtonpanther1 point2 points3 points 6 years ago (4 children) | Copy Link

[–]Beyondthet1 point2 points3 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

[+][deleted] 6 years ago (2 children) | Copy Link

[deleted]

[–]washingtonpanther0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (1 child) | Copy Link

[–]Toasty_Nuggetz2 points3 points4 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

[–]DannyTTT550 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

[–]Delifier0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Comments

An early example of prescribing the use of he to refer to a person of unknown gender is Anne Fisher's 1745 grammar book A New Grammar.\28] Older editions of Fowler also took this view.[29])

^{An early example of prescribing the use of} ^he ^{to refer to a person of unknown gender is Anne Fisher's 1745 grammar book} ^{A New Grammar}^.\28] Older editions of Fowler also took this view.[29])