A Note on the Pay Gap

mikesteane · 2016-04-19T07:06:49+00:00

They always seem to miss the obvious explanation for the difference that remains after female choices etc are accounted for:

If the choices etc. that women make favour lifestyle, shorter hours, work/family balance etc. over increased income, then one would expect that the same reduced drive would affect how they behave within work situations that would otherwise look to be the same. In other words, if they are less motivated to take on a harder framework, then they will also be less motivated within similar frameworks. Less effort reflected by such things as annual reviews etc.

But that would be sexist wouldn't it?

crew45 · 2016-04-20T03:18:31+00:00

Nobody ever points out the fact that the whole romantic dynamic of the species hinges on men making more than women. Women are attracted to status, there is nothing wrong with that but its the truth. What happens when the majority of men make less than the average woman?

carmyk · 2016-04-19T15:01:06+00:00

The portion of the earnings difference between men and women that remains after correcting for occupation, hours worked, etc., is normally considered to be a (perhaps minimal) measure of the extent of discrimination. But, as the author points out, it could be due to other differences between men and women that are not measured in the data.

Is this plausible? One way to check is to look at some of the other earnings gaps out there.

There is a large earnings gap in the US between Jews and non-Jews. If you use exactly the same methodology to correct for occupation, experience, etc., the gap that remains is much larger than the male-female gap.

"Compared with non-Jews, Jewish men have 16 percent higher earnings (other things the same), a 20 percent higher rate of return from schooling, and a steeper experience - earnings profile. These patterns persist even after controlling for occupation, self employment status, and geographic concentration in the New York area."

http://www.jstor.org/stable/145204?seq=1#page_scan_tab_contents

(Just to be clear, the comparison is between male Jews and male non-Jews.)

So, if you believe the unexplained part of the male female earnings gap is proof of discrimination, then the unexplained part of the Jewish - non Jewish gap has to be discrimination as well. After all, we used exactly the same statistical methods to derive the numbers.

So is there a nationwide "Jewish patriarchy" that suppresses gentile earnings? Or is it an unmeasured difference in cultural or genetic factors that accounts for the difference?

At this point we simply can not tell if either or both of these gaps are due to discrimination. Maybe the gender gap is all about discrimination and the Jewish gap is all about culture, or vice-versa, or a bit of both. We just don't know.

Title	A Note on the Pay Gap
Author	jimrosenz
Upvotes	8
Comments	4
Date	April 19, 2016 5:26 AM UTC (10 years ago)
Subreddit	Posted in /r/MensRights
Original Link	https://old.reddit.com/r/MensRights/comments/4fg59b/a_note_on_the_pay_gap/
Archive Link	https://theredarchive.com/r/MensRights/a-note-on-the-pay-gap.951429 https://theredarchive.com/post/951429

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