Studies that show that 20% of women will be raped often have low-response rates and questions being phrased in a way that inflates those who say yes. Could this explain why 7.1% of men report being forced to penetrate? I've read in a study based on Bureau of Justice Statistics national surveys that it is estimated only 8% of women will be raped in their lifetime. Could surveys with low-response rates which report 7.1% of men being forced to penetrate and 2.6% being anally raped mean that the prevalence of male rape victims is lower than that? I mean, studies show that just as many men are forced to penetrate each year as women who are raped each year.

Many feminists argue that women who kill people are just women killing abusive husbands in self-defense. I read from BJS that slightly more than half of women don't even kill husbands/boyfriends/exes. I read the vast majority of murderers are men. Could it be many women who kill abusive husbands were never abused and lied to receive sympathy? Do women who commit murder get away with it through poisoning or hiring hitmen which is why studies show most murderers are men? Also, are female robbers common but underreported compared to male robbers?