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Data on sexual partners by gender shows difference in variance. Requesting comments on its statistical significance.

tiftik

October 2, 2013
16 upvotes
/r/TheRedPill

http://i.imgur.com/G49gj1Y.png

Whole paper: http://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/pii/S0022519309002707

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Post Information
Title Data on sexual partners by gender shows difference in variance. Requesting comments on its statistical significance.
Author

tiftik

Upvotes 16
Comments 12
Date October 2, 2013 4:58 PM UTC
(12 years ago)
Subreddit Posted in /r/TheRedPill
Original Link https://old.reddit.com/r/TheRedPill/comments/1nld2x/data_on_sexual_partners_by_gender_shows/
Archive Link https://theredarchive.com/r/TheRedPill/data-on-sexual-partners-by-gender-shows-difference.7008
https://theredarchive.com/post/7008
Top posts by tiftik

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February 1, 2014
/r/TheRedPill

Comments

[–]mutualaid 2 points3 points4 points 12 years ago (9 children) | Copy Link

men in general have a larger 'spread' of lifetime sexual partners as compared to women, and this is reflected in the six studies this references as well as the cdc data collected on these topics. women's lifetime partners are more tightly clustered around the median.

[–][deleted] 12 years ago (8 children) | Copy Link

[permanently deleted]

[–]mach11 10 points11 points12 points 12 years ago (2 children) | Copy Link

unless we're assuming there is a large number of males out there who aren't in the sexual marketplace

are we not assuming that, all of a sudden?

[–][deleted] 12 years ago (1 child) | Copy Link

[permanently deleted]

[–]mutualaid 1 point2 points3 points 12 years ago (4 children) | Copy Link

The median is not the same (the means are more similar) since the distribution is so different. there are more men at zero, and more men in higher numbers but women have less spread. look at the percentages fo 0, 3-6 and 15+ in this pdf in tables 3 and 4 http://www.cdc.gov/nchs/data/nhsr/nhsr036.pdf

[–][deleted] 12 years ago (3 children) | Copy Link

[permanently deleted]

[–][deleted] 1 point2 points3 points 12 years ago* (1 child) | Copy Link

Yes, I think you're right - the numerator of the fraction is the number of male/female pairs who've had sex, and the denominator is the number of males or the number of females. That's true whether it's all monogamous couples or it's one guy with a harem - the number of pairs in the numerator should be the same for the male average and the female average. So the men are overcounting and/or the women are undercounting. But to audit those figures you'd have to ask everyone for a list of who they had sex with and expect to get an honest answer.

[–]mutualaid 1 point2 points3 points 12 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

This assumes that the entirety of a cohort is being sampled at the end of their lifetime and all sex was within that cohort... There is no way a sample would sync up like that in order to have identical means, regardless of reliability of report.

[–]mutualaid 1 point2 points3 points 12 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

I used median since these are not standard distributions.. The are both large on the left with a long right tail.

[–][deleted] 12 years ago (1 child) | Copy Link

[permanently deleted]

[–]mutualaid 1 point2 points3 points 12 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

it looks as though the numbers in table 1 are pulled from 6 other scientific papers that actually collected data, as opposed to this one which primarily uses modeling to look at the effect of sexual partner variance (which seems to mostly reflect the upper end of the male's sexual partner distribution) on the prevalence of stis.

[–][deleted] 0 points1 point2 points 12 years ago (1 child) | Copy Link

Will somebody who paid attention during Stats 101 have a look at the Britain 1992 numbers and correct me if I'm wrong. For men, the mean number of sexual partners was around 10, and the variance is 6.5K = around 80 squared. That's a scarily skewed distribution, right? Men with zero to twenty sexual partners can have a squared difference from the mean of no more than 100, but the average squared difference is 6.5K, which means that the right tail of the distribution is having an awful lot of sex.

To pick out round figures, suppose 1% of men had 1000 sexual partners and the rest had a negligible number of sexual partners. Then the mean would be 10 and the variance would be a bit less than 10K. That's not all that far off those UK figures. The variance isn't that crazy for the rest of the surveys, so maybe the Rolling Stones were participants in the 1992 survey.

Here's another example. The basketball player Wilt Chamberlain reputedly slept with 20000 women. Suppose they surveyed 50000 men, 49999 of whom had a negligible number of sexual partners and one of whom was Wilt Chamberlain. Then the mean would be 0.4 and the variance would be 8000. Again, the variance isn't too far off the UK 1992 figures. So it seems that the variance can be very influenced by outliers.

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