Why is there much more significance laid on the past sexual past partners but not emotional attachments a women has had in her past? I understand some of the arguments such as pair bonding tendencies in women, but would that also not apply to emotional attachments a women has had with other men? Maybe a women who abstains from sex before marriage can still have the same issues as a women that has the similar (or fewer) amount of sexual partners?
[–]ThrowawayYAYAY2002 12 points13 points14 points (0 children) | Copy Link
[–]1SalporinRP 7 points8 points9 points (1 child) | Copy Link
[–]UnoDosTres7 0 points1 point2 points (0 children) | Copy Link