Long time lurker here, still studying hard on this new aspect of game, of which I've known about for some years. Have a question on a past relationship.

TL;DR: GF left claiming I would never want to get married/have children. TRP knowledge tells me women leave when they lose attraction. Not sure which ended up having the most weight.

Long version: GF of over a year left without much explanation. Everything was going pretty well, and I kept a conscious effort throughout to not give in and become beta in any way. May have overdone it even (if such a thing is possible). Always leading, always taking care of business, having other potential women in my life that she knew of, etc. GF seemed pretty happy and in love, up until 1 week before breakup, when she did a 180.

What happened before the breakup: she was asked by a colleague if she thought we would ever get married (me: 27, her 26). She answered a resounding "no" (I had made it clear kids were not something I looked forward to). She started doubting the relationship and ended things without any explanation whatsoever 1 week later. That was 3 months ago. No contact since then.

Where my confusion lies: red pill theory says women will make an exit if they lose attraction or because of hypergamy. I don't feel any of these were at play (she was at least as attracted to me near the end as she was in the beginning); however, she left without giving me any reasons. A common friend mentioned she had said "I felt everything for him before the question (about marriage), and after that I felt nothing. I didn't see him as a boyfriend anymore, just a friend."

This was 3 months ago and I've kept busy with other women in my life. I do however still have that confusion about which one was at play here, either I slacked off at some point and don't know it, or she actually ended things because she saw no future with me.

Thanks for any insight.