Don't worry i don't have a gf/fiancee nor plan to marry. But one thing has been rubbing me the wrong way from the legal perspective.

Let's say that by some God-given miracle you're in some country with rather sane marriage laws (though civilized one, no muslim or african tribal laws). Now here's the scenario. You married and the laws at that time were rather tame.

20 years down the road it got femnazi'd and divorce rape is legally authorized. If a couple that wed during old order divorces, will the feminized laws apply, or laws that were in place at the time of signing the marriage contract?

I know each country = their own law order, but i mean in general, how does it swing?