My father inherited his childhood home from my grandfather roughly 20 years ago. This is the home I was raised in, and has been the sole place of residency for our family. He inherited it while married to my stepmother, who is going to be filing for divorce at some point in the near future.

She was the primary breadwinner, and my dad was a stay-at-home-dad for most of my upbringing. Currently, they are both retired and receive social security as each of their main sources of income.

Is there any scenario, aside from kindness from my stepmother, in which my dad doesn't have to sell the house and split whatever it goes for?

Could he sell it to me before any motion is filed and therefore have it be irrelevant to the divorce?

Between the fact that I am my dad's only surviving relative, whereas my stepmom has a couple adult children who are very affluent (one of which she has been living with for a few weeks, and has spoken about staying with for a number of years) sway a judge into letting my dad have 100% ownership of the house?