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"We suggest that PMS had a selective advantage because it increased the chance that infertile pair bonds would dissolve, thus improving the reproductive outcomes of women in such partnerships."

MakeTotalDestr0i

February 3, 2022
76 upvotes
/r/BlackPillScience
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC4211719/
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Post Information
Title "We suggest that PMS had a selective advantage because it increased the chance that infertile pair bonds would dissolve, thus improving the reproductive outcomes of women in such partnerships."
Author

MakeTotalDestr0i

Upvotes 76
Comments 19
Date February 3, 2022 6:54 AM UTC
(4 years ago)
Subreddit Posted in /r/BlackPillScience
Original Link https://old.reddit.com/r/BlackPillScience/comments/sjcjej/we_suggest_that_pms_had_a_selective_advantage/
Archive Link https://theredarchive.com/r/BlackPillScience/we-suggest-that-pms-had-a-selective-advantage.1100011
https://theredarchive.com/post/1100011
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Comments

[–]MacaqueOfTheNorth 5 points6 points7 points 4 years ago (18 children) | Copy Link

We confirm predictions arising from the hypothesis: PMS has high heritability; gene variants associated with PMS can be identified; animosity exhibited during PMS is preferentially directed at current partners; and behaviours exhibited during PMS may increase the chance of finding a new partner.

If it was selected for, you would expect low heritability.

[–]HerrLogic 4 points5 points6 points 4 years ago (17 children) | Copy Link

Remember the “honeymoon phase” of finding a new partner. In that time frame impregnation can occur. That’s how it became heritable.

[–]MacaqueOfTheNorth 1 point2 points3 points 4 years ago (16 children) | Copy Link

I don't follow you. My point is that traits that are selected for become less heritable over time because the deleterious genetic variants are selected out of the gene pool.

[–]DrBLEH 1 point2 points3 points 4 years ago (6 children) | Copy Link

You're thinking of traits that are selected against

[–]MacaqueOfTheNorth 0 points1 point2 points 4 years ago (5 children) | Copy Link

No, I'm not. There is effectively no difference. A trait cannot be selected for without the opposite trait being selected against. Natural selection removes disadvantageous alleles from the gene pool, reducing genetic variability and therefore heritability.

[–]DrBLEH 1 point2 points3 points 4 years ago (4 children) | Copy Link

Natural selection also selects for advantageous alleles via differential reproduction leading to said allele increasing in frequency in a population. There is no opposite trait for the ability to detect light, for example. That trait was advantageous and was hence selected for by becoming more frequent in populations leading eventually to eyesight.

[–]MacaqueOfTheNorth 0 points1 point2 points 4 years ago (3 children) | Copy Link

There is no opposite trait for the ability to detect light, for example.

The inability to detect light.

That trait was advantageous and was hence selected for by becoming more frequent in populations leading eventually to eyesight.

And then once everyone has it, the heritability will be zero because there will be no variability in the genes that influence the ability to detect light.

[–]DrBLEH 1 point2 points3 points 4 years ago (2 children) | Copy Link

The inability to detect light isn't an allele, unless you refer to some sort of mutation which will blind you lol.

If everyone has the alleles for eyesight then heritability for eyesight is not zero, it's approaching 100% (not actually 100% thanks to mutation).

What are you even talking about lol

[–]MacaqueOfTheNorth 0 points1 point2 points 4 years ago (1 child) | Copy Link

If everyone has the alleles for eyesight then heritability for eyesight is not zero, it's approaching 100% (not actually 100% thanks to mutation).

You need to look up the definition of heritability.

[–]DrBLEH 0 points1 point2 points 4 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Lol ok man, good luck out there

[–]HerrLogic 0 points1 point2 points 4 years ago (8 children) | Copy Link

My point was that by the time the female had sought a new partner, she was already impregnated by the prior partner. So the aspects of her genome that made her seek new partners gets passed to her offspring.

[–]MacaqueOfTheNorth 0 points1 point2 points 4 years ago (7 children) | Copy Link

This makes no sense. First of all, the argument is that it's premenstrual syndrome which causes her to seek a new partner. If she were pregnant, she wouldn't experience premenstrual syndrome.

Secondly, even if the genetic variant gets passed on to her offspring, that doesn't neccessarily make the trait more heritable. If it is being selected for, that variant will replace all others and the heritibility of the trait will go to zero.

[–]HerrLogic 0 points1 point2 points 4 years ago (6 children) | Copy Link

Ugh… You do realize that pregnancy doesn’t cause monogamy, right?

She would have the predisposition to seek new partners in her dna. It would get passed on regardless.

Whether or not someone experiences premenstrual syndrome doesn’t belie the fact that the genetic component of premenstrual syndrome can get passed on.

I could die before developing gray hair but that doesn’t negate the fact that I could pass on the genetics for gray hair to my offspring as long as I reproduced before I died.

[–]MacaqueOfTheNorth 0 points1 point2 points 4 years ago (5 children) | Copy Link

I don't think you know what heritability is. It's not the ability to pass on genetic variants that cause a trait. It's the amount of variance in a trait that is due to genetic variation. If everyone has the same genetic variant, the heritability of the trait is zero.

[–]HerrLogic 0 points1 point2 points 4 years ago (4 children) | Copy Link

I never said everyone had the same genetic component regarding PMS…

[–]MacaqueOfTheNorth 0 points1 point2 points 4 years ago (3 children) | Copy Link

No, I'm saying that that would happen if it were selected for.

[–]HerrLogic 0 points1 point2 points 4 years ago (2 children) | Copy Link

When it comes to evolution, traits don’t have to be strictly selected for. They can proliferate simply by not being selected against.

[–]MacaqueOfTheNorth1 point 4 years ago [recovered] | Copy Link

Yes, but we're talking about a situation where the trait is supposedly being selected for.

[–]HerrLogic1 point 4 years ago [recovered] | Copy Link

Females select the males for mating. Males select which mates get long-term support.

Even if one male chooses not to support a female that had swapped him out for another male, all it takes for that female’s genes to proliferate is for her get at least one male to impregnate her. Eventually someone is going to do it.

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