When men are victims of domestic violence they are less likely than women to report it. My understanding (perhaps from an old Karen Straughan video) is that part of the problem here is that men are less likely to identify violence directed against them as "domestic abuse" in the first place. However, even if they do identify abuse targeted at them as "domestic violence," they are still less likely than women to consider it criminal and thus less likely to consider themselves a victim of a crime. Can anyone point me to sources that address these issues? I would very much appreciate it. Thank you.