Per our agreed-upon decree--entered into a little over a year ago--my ex and I have 50/50 possession of our two kids.  Also per the decree, I don’t pay any child support (although I do pay tuition, health insurance, and kids' therapy bills).  For various reasons, however, we may switch to her having 60/40 possession.

My questions: (1) Would switching to 60/40 possession, even by mutual agreement, entitle her under the law to claim child support?  (2) If so, would she be entitled to the full amount of child support that Texas provides ($2,300 per month for two kids), or would she only be entitled to a prorated amount to reflect that she only has them 60% of the time?