Hi All,

I asked this before and wanted to put it back out there. I feel like the common sense end of this and the law end are just contradictory to one another.

This is my 6th modification over the last 2 1/5 years since my first. I am in sales so this stuff gets crazy because of draws, commission and everything elses.

My base salary is decreasing by 50% starting December 1st, the hearing is Dec 15th. I have all the proof so my question is not that.

Since our separation i found out that my ex's mother has been gifting around 4k a month. I have actual proof, her lawyer even wrote it in a document to basically rub my nose in it and then stated it was a gift and I had no claim to it.... well this reoccurring monthly gift of 4k over 18 months is a total of 72k tax free.

Ontop of that I pay 2200 in support for two children and an additional 3k in Alimony. She is netting close to 10k per month and does not contribute nor does my support decrease even though she has additional income as she claims 0 income, which is true but not.

She will not work, and at this point the court has not at least attached a potential earned income. There stand point is that due to covid she can not find work as she must be home to look after the kids and make sure they are doing all of their school work. I understand this but sadly she is not the only single mother in the world that is in this position. Ontop of that would you really be looking for work netting 10k a month tax free? I do harbor some resentment to this as the divorce was not my idea and cheating on me didn't help how I feel about her personal problems.

Ok so my question. Why is there a double standard to everything? If I was receiving a consistent payment every month from my family or working under the table you know damn sure she would be going after it to contribute more.

Second not one time during our 6 hearings did she ever make the court aware of this, how can this be possibly viewed any other way than hiding financials.

Has anyone ever been in this position?