I was reviewing the 2010 census info on the wage gap and although the ratio for female to male earnings is 77 percent. I find it highly suspect how this is being looked at. Their stated statistic does not seem to be controlling for life-choice factors at all. It's just a big conglomerate of (assumed) total hours worked, (which apparently is being assumed to be the same per gender?) to pay received with no consideration to real hours worked and careers chosen. In fact it assumes quite the opposite it adjusts for women working more hours by alotting them extra "time worked" during the summer to count towards their total hours.

Two things:

1) note 25 on page 12 says:

25 A full-time, year-round worker is a person who worked 35 or more hours per week (full time) and 50 or more weeks during the previous calendar year (year round). For school personnel, summer vacation is counted as weeks worked if they are scheduled to return to their job in the fall. For detailed information on work experience, see Table PINC-05, “Work Experience in 2010—People 15 Years Old and Over by Total Money Earnings in 2010, Age, Race, Hispanic Origin, and Sex” at <www.census.gov/hhes/www /income/dinctabs.html>.

By counting teachers labor as "full-time" when most teachers are female, according to the national center for education information. They are essentially making up 3 months of work that females would be doing and "not getting paid for" and then including it within the normal full-time statistic.

2.) Can I get some help with page 13 on the report. It seems to say that there are roughly ~ 13.6 million more men working full time? So, since the graph is simply a representation of "amount of money made" wouldn't their collective pay be greater than the female population? which is smaller? Or am I thinking about that incorrectly?

Thanks,

Edit: here's the actual report to review: http://www.census.gov/prod/2011pubs/p60-239.pdf