That is, we are told that men are encouraged to sexually objectify women and that this means to regard women as nothing more than sexual objects.

Evidence of this "objectification" comes in the form of, for instance, looking at Playboy. Women there are displayed scantily clad and naked for the purpose of arousal. A man viewing Playboy is thereby "objectifying" the models therein, because he is only interested in them (while viewing the magazine, at least) for their physical attributes.

Is it possible to feel lust and simultaneously appreciate someone as a full human being and not a "mere sexual object"? That is, to avoid objectification, would our hypothetical Playboy reader have to contemporaneously, genuinely feel concern about the model's thoughts, feelings, political opinions, and upbringing?

How about a man viewing his wife - if he catches himself checking out his wife's ass, says to himself simply "my wife has a hot ass!", is he objectifying in that moment if he does not immediately say "And I respect her deeper self and her knowledge of late 19th century British poetry." Or does the prior relationship between the two somehow obviate the single-minded moment of lust, where literally nothing is going on beyond an appreciation of her secondary sex traits?

Are women objectifying men if they go see a movie just because they think Johnny Depp is cute? Was Magic Mike "objectification"? Are both examples objectification but are not "bad" like male objectification of women because of (insert something about systematic oppression, The Male Gaze, and power dynamics)?

Do gay men objectify each other? Is this less bad than heterosexual objectification? How about gay women?

Do animals objectify each other? When a female peacock chooses to mate with the male peacock with the largest feathers, is she objectifying those feathers?

Do we objectify athletes, with the objectification around their performance rather than their sexual qualities? Is it possibly to "objectify" someone for their mind?

My basic question is this: in any given instance of sincere, involuntary lust, is there a way to determine if the lust-er is objectifying the lust-ee?

If a stranger in a movie theater around you says "Scarlett Johannson has a hot ass in this movie!" can you know whether he has objectified Scarlett without having access to his mind to ascertain any other simultaneous thoughts about Scarlett and/or his previous opinions on Scarlett's humanitarian work?

EDIT

With my lengthy, rambling OP, I obscured my primary question. I'm not, primarily, asking what sort of objectification is morally worse. I'm not interested in the ethical question as much as I am something much more basic: the ontological and empirical questions.

  • Is there a difference between Objectification and Lust?
  • If Objectification and Lust are separate things, are they still naturally co-occurring phenomena?
  • How can we ascertain the difference between Objectification and Lust, if there is one?