When the phrase "women and children" is used, what is really meant is "non-men"

kloo2yoo · 2010-05-29T00:13:33+00:00

http://www.reddit.com/r/MensRights/comments/7xlcq/women_and_children_comprise_75_of_the_victims/

smallblacksun · 2010-05-28T22:49:27+00:00

Duh? What else would it mean?

chonnes · 2010-05-29T03:20:20+00:00

Here are things I find particularly interesting about that phrase and it's use: 1.) If there were (2) brothers, twelve years old and fourteen years old, would they be separated? 2.) Looking at everyone's genitalia would (probably) separate all the females out of the group, but what would then be the criteria to then separate males considered "children" and males that were beyond the "children" phase? 3.) In the grand scheme of things, EVERY single person is some body else's child. On a sinking ship, if they called women and children and I ran up to the front of the line, what would I be told? 4.) Following the above argument, is there anything that could be said or argument made, to make me say, "okay" and walk back to the end? 5.) Would the depth of my reasoning and analytical skills automatically ensure that I am included in the first group? 6.) If I were allowed to stay in the first group, does that then make the phrase "women and children first" actually a riddle used to separate those that can help continue the existence of intelligence? (one in a biological sense, and one in a scientific or sociological sense) 7.) Historically, it took nothing more than a quick glance to separate women from men because of the significance of clothing and maybe hairstyle. Therefore were masculine women automatically given a free-pass off a sinking ship over a young, effeminate man? 8.) Back then, since one's sex was identified by appearance, would the incidence of masculine women and effeminate men have been higher or lower than today?

nuuur32 · 2010-05-28T23:18:29+00:00

Or, "vulnerable meant for preserving."

I think those phrases are dated. They lead to a definition of man as someone that can stand up and fend for themselves, despite any looming vulnerabilities.

2010-05-28T22:47:59+00:00

You are correct

2010-05-28T23:39:13+00:00

Is that like 'minority' means 'non-white', even if white is the minority?

2010-05-29T03:14:12+00:00

I agree; that kind of observation (which is meant to point out women and children as "innocent defenseless casualties") does not make sense anymore. It would have made sense in a society where all men were essentially the military force of their community (constantly armed, assumed protectors of the community), and where women & children were the only "civilians". Today, with a much larger society, the majority of men are civilians.

doctor_alligator · 2010-05-29T00:04:14+00:00

Yes, generally speaking, women and children, including boys too young to be called men, are labelled as 'women and children' and not as 'men'. Thanks for the verification though.

jelliedbabies · 2010-05-29T07:27:40+00:00

Where cowardliness is disguised as enforced chivalry.

AnnArchist · 2010-05-29T05:48:48+00:00

No, it just means that they can't come up with a real legitimate logical argument for it, so they will just play on peoples emotions.

lazylion_ca · 2010-05-28T23:41:58+00:00

no, what is really meant is women and if theres room in the boat then chidlren.

chonnes · 2010-05-29T02:37:44+00:00

[permanently deleted]

Title	When the phrase "women and children" is used, what is really meant is "non-men"
Author	square_cubed
Upvotes	23
Comments	29
Date	May 28, 2010 10:07 PM UTC (16 years ago)
Subreddit	Posted in /r/MensRights
Original Link	https://old.reddit.com/r/MensRights/comments/c97fi/when_the_phrase_women_and_children_is_used_what/
Archive Link	https://theredarchive.com/r/MensRights/when-the-phrase-women-and-children-is-used-what-is.1049326 https://theredarchive.com/post/1049326

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