For the purpose of this chapter, "marital property" means all property acquired by either spouse subsequent to the marriage except:

(e) The increase in value of property acquired before the marriage to the extent that such increase did not result from the efforts of the parties during marriage.

Am I correct in understanding this to mean that if a premarital asset (my home) increases in value primarily due to market conditions and not due to any other factors (remodel during the marriage etc) that she would not be entitled to the appreciation of my separate property (title and mortgage solely in my name and was purchased a few months prior to the marriage.) Any insight would be greatly appreciated.