We've all heard this statistic before in the manosphere, in the redpill, in the blackpill, in dating app statistics etc. I'm going to try to ask this question as good faith as i could possibly be because in the end Im curious and its just a question not a statement coming from me. I hate talking about this statistic and I hate seeing it but I want to ask anyway.

The "80/20" rule which was multiple ways of being said or interpreted. Some say "80 percent of women DATE 20% of men". Some say "80 percent of women SLEEP with 20% of men" and some leave it vague by saying "the top percent of men get most of the women"

Why is the statistic denied entirely?

When I come here on exrepill or venture on r/incelexit its usually universally also including subs like r/inceltears and the other subs such as r/NotHowGirlsWork.

I do agree and believe that when you take the statistic at face value, such as saying that "80 percent of women only go for 20% of guys" then yes the statistic is hyperbolic and does not make any logical sense. However I do believe it depends which aspect of dating you are talking about.

If you are talking about serious relationships and marriage then yes 80/20 does not apply. One of the common comebacks i've witnessed when others quote the 80/20 rule is "if you go to walmart, you'll see average couples in relationships" which yes is obviously correct.

However, I do believe the correct interpretation is saying that 80% of women SLEEP with 20% of men. Hookup culture and one night stands are very prominent in the United States and other countries as well. In the US I would argue that currently in 2024 I believe hookup culture and casual sex is the more dominant form of dating in the US rather than serious relationships. Because of this its most likely that if you aren't a top percent guy having a bunch of casual sex, it doesn't mean that you are completely out of the dating game, it just means you'll have to wait until young women are done sleeping around for them to settle for you in a serious relationship.

Ill talk more about my generation Gen Z, because other than millennials its pretty much the generation to talk about when discussing this. I've noticed the trend that most Gen Z women and a smaller group of Gen Z men and older millennial men having most of the casual sex and one night stands because of the statistics of male sexlessness rising in Gen Z men. However despite this many people still deny the rule despite stats showing that male sexlessness is rising in Gen Z while Women's sexlessness isn't. Why do people completely deny the rule?

TLDR: The 80/20 rules is often misinterpreted by young men believing that 80 percent of women only date 20% of men, however the correct interpretation is that younger women SLEEP or HAVE SEX with the top percent of men. Sure taking that stat at face value is incorrect since we see average couples out all the time. But when it comes to the casual sex aspect why do these subs and a lot of people still deny the stat?