Question from a newcomer

Degraine · 2014-07-12T06:11:49+00:00

Well, it depends on which country you're talking about. In the UK, it is impossible to be charged for rape as a woman, since the act is legally defined as requiring a penis. Indian feminists recently prevented that country from changing their laws concerning rape to be gender neutral (rather than using language that calls the victim female and the criminal male).

Other instances of prejudice against males in law are more to do with de facto biases, such as the vast proportion of divorces resulting in mothers gaining sole or primary custody over the children - fathers who actually go to court to fight for their right to access do get it a lot of the time, but those men are a self-selecting group who have very strong cases.

So the answer is, unfortunately, 'it depends on what country, and what aspect of law you are talking about'. There isn't a simple, one line answer to that question.

LittlePurplePenguin · 2014-07-12T06:02:29+00:00

I'm sure there are others far more versed than I, but my understanding, aside from things like the "Violence against women act", is that most are written rather broadly and tend to refer to "on the basis of gender" rather than naming women specifically. That said, the practical application and interpretation of many of these laws aren't exactly in line with that. Additionally, while the 'tender years doctrine' was replaced by 'best interests of the child', the end result has remained largely the same.

One could also argue that the definition of rape widely used, which consists of forced penetration, is sexist. Legally speaking, this makes it largely impossible for a woman to rape a man.

-Fender- · 2014-07-12T07:35:18+00:00

[permanently deleted]

MRSPArchiver · 2014-07-12T05:48:01+00:00

Post text automatically copied here. (Why?) (Report a problem.)

aussietoads · 2014-07-13T03:50:39+00:00

Here in Australia there is a constant see-saw in the writing of, and repeal of facets of family laws. The Labour government introduced sexist family law amendments in the 1980's, which were later amended to be gender neutral by a Liberal government, only to be amended again by a Labour government in favour of women, then amended again most recently by the current Liberal Government to be gender neutral again.

However, throughout the last 3 decades, irrespective of the actual wording of facets of family law, Feminist jurisprudence has reigned roughshod over the intent of the law to ensure women are given the greatest support and beneficial outcome while men are demonized and blocked at every opportunity from exercising their legal parental rights.

2014-07-12T09:18:51+00:00

A couple examples:

Conscription in the US is men only, and affects many other legal matters.

The UN and many nations have made their bans on genital mutilation female only.

Title	Question from a newcomer
Author	somethingyo
Upvotes	2
Comments	29
Date	July 12, 2014 5:47 AM UTC (12 years ago)
Subreddit	Posted in /r/MensRights
Original Link	https://old.reddit.com/r/MensRights/comments/2ahq3l/question_from_a_newcomer/
Archive Link	https://theredarchive.com/r/MensRights/question-from-a-newcomer.998087 https://theredarchive.com/post/998087

Comments