Suppose you have a random sample of 100 girls and then 100 guys, all in their early 20's. (Western Society)

From what I've read here, it would not be uncommon to find that about 80% of the girls have an n-count of at least 20? (that number 20 may or may not be a coincidence related to 80/20)

And about 80% of the guys have an n-count much below 20? (this correlates with many TRP posts that say that it's now common for most women to have a high n-count while most men don't)

What this means is that the 20 or so guys that the 80% of girls have partnered will overwhelmingly be from the remaining top 20% of guys (the alpha/chads) Edit: this is likely very wrong, see nicethingyoucanthave's reply below.

But doing the math, does this mean that these top 20% guys have n-counts of about 80 or so each? Someone please check my math.