I'm not a feminist or an MRA, I'm also a gay male so to some degree relations between men and women perhaps affect me less on a personal level, since a lot of the time these subjects will often be focused on male/female relationships. But I was curious what other people's opinions are all the same.

I noticed that when 'violence against women' is talked about, it seems like it doesn't meet the same criteria that other types of bigoted violence have. For example, in order for an assault or a murder to be considered homophobic (gay bashing), the motive for the attack has to be that the person was same sex attracted. However, if someone who happens to be straight assaults someone who happens to be gay, but sexuality had nothing to do with the motive, then it's no longer an anti gay assault. Same applies to things like skin colour, or religion. It made me question why then, does a man hitting/killing a woman automatically count as violence 'against women'? Surely if a man hits a woman, as much as it's wrong, there will be all kinds of different motivations for it that have nothing to do with her sex. Maybe I'm being very ignorant and missing an important point, but I just don't see why a man being violent toward a woman MUST mean her being female had anything to do with it.

I would feel the same way about women hitting their boyfriends/husbands. I don't assume she hates all men for that. Keep in mind that DV also happens in same sex relationships, and again, there don't seem to be broad, psychological assumptions made about the abusers in same sex relationships either.