The only reason they can even attempt to claim this, which isn't accurate in any way shape or form, is because they meticulously leave out how their "studies" use antiquated and very narrowly defined definitions of rape... namely, the technical legal definition which basically amounts to "women can't be charged with this crime"... of course if you meticulously exclude an entire gender of perpetrators the statistics will suggest this nonsense, but when we normalise the data and include the crime women CAN be charged with, suddenly men and women are committing these crimes and almost identical rates.

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