For your information, the actual text of the bill legislation can be found here: https://leginfo.legislature.ca.gov/faces/billNavClient.xhtml?bill_id=201320140SB967

Here is a summary of the law's main point:

(1) An affirmative consent standard in the determination of whether consent was given by both parties to sexual activity. “Affirmative consent” means affirmative, conscious, and voluntary agreement to engage in sexual activity. It is the responsibility of each person involved in the sexual activity to ensure that he or she has the affirmative consent of the other or others to engage in the sexual activity. Lack of protest or resistance does not mean consent, nor does silence mean consent. Affirmative consent must be ongoing throughout a sexual activity and can be revoked at any time. The existence of a dating relationship between the persons involved, or the fact of past sexual relations between them, should never by itself be assumed to be an indicator of consent.

I personally, despite being a female think this is way over the top. I don't understand how a girl could want sex with a guy one minute and then while she's getting fucked suddenly decide that she doesn't agree to it. If I don't want a guy to touch me I let him know and push him away. I mean yes sometimes I might ask him if he is sure he wants to fuck or does he really want to fuck just to play with him a little, to see if he really knows what he wants.

But I do think the law doesn't make a distinction between a lack of consent and disinterest in sex. To me a lack of consent would be if I would never want sex with a specific guy, but disinterest means its plausible but he hasn't aroused me to the point where I get butterflies yet. There is a huge difference between the two and I don't think we need a law to tell us that.

Thoughts?