Here's the article: http://www.nytimes.com/2009/01/25/magazine/25desire-t.html?scp=1&sq=&st=nyt&pagewanted=all&_r=0

What I can't understand is why the author feels this part has to be included:

Meana made clear, during our conversations in a casino bar and on the U.N.L.V. campus, that she was speaking in general terms, that, when it comes to desire, “the variability within genders may be greater than the differences between genders,” that lust is infinitely complex and idiosyncratic.

She pronounced, as well, “I consider myself a feminist.” Then she added, “But political correctness isn’t sexy at all.” For women, “being desired is the orgasm,” Meana said somewhat metaphorically — it is, in her vision, at once the thing craved and the spark of craving. About the dynamic at “Zumanity” between the audience and the acrobats, Meana said the women in the crowd gazed at the women onstage, excitedly imagining that their bodies were as desperately wanted as those of the performers.

What I'm getting out of it is that no matter what the contrary evidence shows, this woman feels the need to include an irrelevant feminist slant on the research for whatever reason.

I'm hoping this sparks a few more debates about different aspects of this research but for now I'd like to concentrate on why you guys feel she needs to throw her feminist perspective in there seemingly out of nowhere, which imo completely contradicts everything she's concluded up to that point?