http://archive.is/3nSLk

I wonder why that's only rape in the 3rd degree. It's my understanding that the legal reasoning behind forcing men raped as minors to pay child support to their rapists is that the sex was "consensual". I suspect that's what they are alleging here. PREA did categorize prison rape into several different categories with many incidents deemed as "consensual" with the vast majority of those being female perpetrated against male victims.

PREA 20011 definition: "Staff-on-inmate sexual victimization includes both consensual and nonconsensual acts perpetrated on an inmate by staff. ( Page 2)

http://www.bjs.gov/content/pub/pdf/ssvacf0911st.pdf

In juvenile detention we have

"Juvenile correctional authorities reported that sexual contact between the youth and staff “appeared to be willing” in 50% of substantiated incidents (table 11). Few incidents of staff sexual harassment were determined to be willing (2%)." (Page 13)

It's even stranger than youth as young as 12 can "consent".

http://www.bjs.gov/content/pub/pdf/svrjca0712.pdf

One of the thoughts I have is why is consent categorized in these instances? I suspect it's because a disproportionate number of perpetrators are women and victims are men. We also have demands to end statute of limitations for rape except to my knowledge rape in prison, which is again disproportionally committed by women against men and boys.

To be fair they would remove the statute of limitations on filing rape charges in cases of prison rape. They would council the prisoners upon release that this is possible now that they're no longer under coercive control and of course recognize that a person victimized years ago may have inconsistencies in their memory. What do you think the chances are that will happen and why do you think that is?