Did men have a granted right to vote the last centuries?

2025-02-28T08:41:47+00:00

No.

In the US it's only been 188 years for white guys,

155 for all men 21+

105 for women 21+

And only 54 years for 18-21 along with women of that age group.

So only 1 century. This is common knowledge, one only need to joogle the dates.

CatacombsRave · 2025-02-28T11:45:48+00:00

Some states still require Selective Service registration for men to vote. So, for these men, it’s still not a right; it’s a privilege.

Tank-o-grad · 2025-02-28T08:52:11+00:00

In the UK the 1918 Representation of the People Act, which is only ever referred to by feminists as granting women over 30 the vote (8 million iirc) also granted the vote for the first time to 5 million men over 21 who previously hadn't met the property requirements.

The reason for the age disparity was down to the demographic effect of World War 1, the fighting of which was the reason either group was granted the vote. 80% of those who died for King and Country in France and Flanders' Fields did not have the vote. The age disparity was gone by the start of World War 2.

hendrixski · 2025-02-28T13:17:48+00:00

Men have no right to vote now.

Men's right to vote in many states is contingent on registering for the draft. Failure to do so is a felony and felons cannot vote.

63daddy · 2025-02-28T14:38:19+00:00

In the United States, each state grants the right to vote to all adult citizens with some exceptions, such as felons, but to this day, there is no constitutionally guaranteed right to vote for either men or women. The 19th amendment simply says states cannot discriminate in who they give rights to vote to, but it does not guarantee any right to vote.

HikuroMishiro · 2025-02-28T22:40:59+00:00

Historically voting was often (in a way still is) tied to military service. Women generally weren't allowed to fight in wars because it's easier for a population to rebound losing mostly men than it is losing a lot of women. Voting was a privilege given to those actually fighting for the country. Land ownership was also often granted to primarily soldiers, and over time voting became more tied to land owners. Both soldiers and land owners have more of a 'stake' in the country, so even though it was more difficult for women to qualify, this prerequisite has logical sense and wasn't usually an 'anti-woman' thing (most men still couldn't vote either). I assume in many countries men may have gotten the 'right' to vote before women, but it's probably a lot less of a gap than most people think.

At least in the US voting has always varied based on city/state/etc. There were some women voting in some places in the early 1800's, even if that wasn't the norm. One could say that men still don't have the 'right' to vote in the US since they have to register for the draft whereas women don't, but I think it's fair to say that most men were generally voting before most women, but again the gap isn't as large as most people probably think.

tms79 · 2025-02-28T10:08:23+00:00

This is a good reference, to see when the sexes were percentage wise able to vote. The graph is based on the UK. So a good chunk of the male population got only roughly 50 years earlier the right to vote. Before that, it was pretty much the same for the vast majority of both sexes.

http://empathygap.uk/?p=271

JJnanajuana · 2025-02-28T10:36:13+00:00

In Australia:

1856: Male residents (21+) got the vote in south Australia. (Other states followed.)

38 years later

1894: women got the vote in south Australia (other states followed.)

(1901: Australia becomes a nation)

68 years after women got the vote

1962: Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander men and women got the vote.

Source: Australian Electoral Commisssion goverment website.

https://www.aec.gov.au/About_AEC/25/theme1-voting-history.htm

Eden_Company · 2025-02-28T09:36:39+00:00

Minority men weren't reliably given the opportunity to vote until like 1960 if I recall, often they got lynched instead when they tried to vote. Being killed means your rights essentially don't exist after all.

WeEatBabies · 2025-02-28T18:41:24+00:00

No, land owner did, bottom 95% men did not!

Financial_Window_990 · 2025-03-02T18:42:37+00:00

Nope. White women have had the right to vote l9nger than white men. By 45 years. The vote was restricted to RICH landowners who were white regardless of sex. Expanded to rich landowners regardless of sex or color. Then expanded and became rich landowners regardless of sex or color and white women. Then finally expanded to all people over 18 regardless of sex or color, finally including white men as a category.

Title	Did men have a granted right to vote the last centuries?
Author	RiP_Nd_tear
Upvotes	35
Comments	15
Date	February 28, 2025 8:29 AM UTC (1 year ago)
Subreddit	Posted in /r/MensRights
Original Link	https://old.reddit.com/r/MensRights/comments/1j03339/did_men_have_a_granted_right_to_vote_the_last/
Archive Link	https://theredarchive.com/r/MensRights/did-men-have-a-granted-right-to-vote-the-last.1545215 https://theredarchive.com/post/1545215

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