I am beginning to notice a pattern of the intentional lack of research of misandry. When I look up misandry on google, most of the people that cover it are wannabe editors, or journalists that almost ALWAYS reduce it just "feelings." When I research misandry, it is usually females saying, "misandry has no real effect on men," while not actively using societal observations to conduct this research. There is no tested hypothesis within the aspects of misandry. They say it does not exist because of a "lack of evidence," meanwhile we actively observe on a day-to-day basis men facing the EXACT same issues women used their observations to conduct studies on misogyny. Feminists will claim that misogyny is due to gender and misandry is due to their experience, however this falls apart because you need to use the argument that males are innately born evil, and females are innately born good. But the rest of you, as much as I, realize the systematic effects of misandry.

  1. Socially acceptable violence towards females is considered to be misogyny. Other than India, I have yet to see where violence against females is socially acceptable, if anything quite the opposite. If you are in the street, and you are being assaulted by male its misogyny. However, despite the amount of video evidence, we have all over, they believe that females beating men and claiming men are not allowed to fight back is not misandry? When news media portrays male victims of assault as "perpetrators," that quite literally fits the definition of misandry, and it fits the definition of misogyny when done to women.

  2. It is seen as misogyny to pay females less for the same work a male does, (or so they claim is happening). So why is it not seen as misandry for female teachers to actively give male students lesser grades despite similar performance to female students? Do they not realize that the lower the grades are, the lower the GPA is, resulting in the lack of advancement in education for male students? This is quite literally misogyny when done to females

  3. The deleting of statistics of male victims. There is so much I can say on this. All due respect; they would be foaming at the mouth if this were done to female victims, so why is it no seen as misandry when done to men?

  4. Successfully lobbying against gender neutral rape. Holy fuck you guys, how does this not see as misandry?

  5. Double standards of sexual assault and rape. Female celebrities basking in the fact that what they did to a male co-worker or a male in general, and them getting praised for it, this is literally misogyny except it is done to men. And they say it does not exist

In my eyes, feminists intentionally do a lack of research on misandry. They do it because to acknowledge its existence, they have to admit women have agency and power to negatively affect men. They male arguments that it has no systematic effect, despite the plethora of current day evidence to show that it does. They argue that there is no "historical evidence" to show this, yeah because it was never a focus. What they are saying is that because they didn't have evidence to show it from history then it does not exist today, and that our observations mean nothing DESPITE the fact that similar observations.

This is one example of what I mean. Misandry vs. Misogyny Combating Gender Prejudice

Anyways, hopefully some psychology majors can chip in.