TRPers often claim that sexism in the past was not as severe as people believe because men suffered too, but this is a logical fallacy.

For example, I recall reading a comment where a BPer lamented the fact that women could not vote for several decades after it was initially granted to men, and a RPer countered by saying that only rich men could vote -- thus, it was more of a class issue than a gender one. However, this is an example of poor reasoning for two reasons: 1) Rich women also could not vote, which dispels the idea of it being mainly due to class and 2) it's a logical fallacy to say that Group A's complaints are not valid because Group B suffered as well.

I've seen similar reasoning apply to other claims about sexism in the past -- men suffered too, therefore women's complaints are less valid. But this still doesn't explain why women of similar class/status to men did not have the same rights, and it's not sound reasoning.