Hey, I'm trying to understand the MRM. I see what seems to be a discrepancy in this movement, and I was hoping someone could clarify this for me.

MRAs argue that (based on current definitions of rape) men are frequently rape victims, and that society does not take those victims seriously and they are often ridiculed when they come forward. This position within the MRM I agree with (as do most of the feminists I interact directly with.)

But, you seem to also have MRAs who say that definitions of rape have gone too far, eliminating many "sexual options" for men. MRAs oppose the idea of "rape culture" and argue that men (and presumably women?) should have the option of sleeping with someone who is intoxicated and that this should not qualify as rape.

This seems to be a glaring contradiction I'm hoping someone can clear up for me. It seems the current definitions of rape and consent are the ones that include many male victims. But it also seems some of you oppose these current definitions for the sake of "sexual options" for men. Other cultural factors and double standards aside, what definition of rape do MRAs propose, and is it different for male victims vs female victims?