Ok so all the stuff I've been reading has been getting me thinking. Hypothetically, if a woman (Mary) performed oral sex on a male (Bob) and then used Bob's semen to impregnate herself, is Bob responsible as a father? Could he take her to court & if so, then for what? I'd imagine that not only could you argue that the child doesn't qualify for child support, but maybe be able to sue Mary to not only try and get monetary compensation but get rid of the fetus. Please let me know what you think and probably the realities? Oh btw, I live in California