The more I'm ingesting information the more I'm coming across this idea that sex drives work in two separate (allegedly) legitimate ways:
It seems like a cop-out to me. Even so, I see two competing RP principles at work:
RP seems to assume women are naturally spontaneous but become responsive when their man goes beta and they no longer desire him. Then, when they spot a higher value man who shows IOIs, they become spontaneous again. Ideally this is her husband becoming that higher-value man.
RP also says that men should always initiate, even when their wives aren't giving off IOIs because that initiation might get her in the mood. So, RP suggests flirting, game, kino, etc. to get her in the mood.
Thoughts? Is the second RP position a tacit acknowledgment that some women are mostly responsive in their sexual desire and that's okay/legitimate? Or does RP suggest that all women can and should be spontaneously sexual and it's just a matter of the man becoming high-value enough? If the answer is "it depends on the woman," does this mean "AWALT" is not true in regard to how female sexual desire functions on a categorical level (obviously specific desires will vary)?