Below is the link to the video. In summary, a young blonde with two children from two different men married an older dude for six months and had a 3rd child with him. During this time, he covered all expenses. She moved her kids and mother into his home, then filed a restraining order to remove him from the property. while cheating with him with another man in hotel.

Now, she is demanding that the house—which he purchased before they met—be sold so she can claim half of the equity. They were only married for 6 months and dated couple of months before that. the house value is 700k and the judge is considering selling the property and dividing the equity. This is in Tennessee.

I am so confused for two reasons

1) Why the hell Is she entitled to his asset? even if made payments during the 6months of marriage that should be that payment 1/2 not the hole property. why are they even talking about selling the whole property?

2) she cheated on him. but now all states are no fault marriage. why bringing her cheating on him while discussing the property division? what does that have to do with anything?

3) his lawyer subpoena her text record to prove adultery. why is that even a thing in no fault marriage?

I am just looking to understand.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?app=desktop&v=1kC1iGvo7cw