Why is it that in a situation where two drunk people sex, the man is always the aggressor? I understand rape is very serious, but it seems like it's a weapon that only women can use against men. If they wake up in the morning and realize that they DIDN'T want to have sex with that guy, he "raped" them. This completely negates the fact that this so-called "aggressor" could have been equally as drunk and consenting. Women are the de jure victims. I don't think I've seen a case like this where the woman was held responsible for taking advantage of a drunk man.