I am referring to the following report that was shared on "Feminist" subreddits such as R/Menslib:

https://journals.sagepub.com/doi/10.1177/03616843231202708

In that report, "Feminist" researchers attempted to disprove the notion that "Feminists" hate men, by utilising convenience samples(something they even admitted themselves).

Convenience samples are oftentimes drawn from research databases, social media or even by invitation in and of itself.

While such tactics tends to obviously reduce time and costs, they run the risk of said samples not being representative of the populations studied at large and solely reflecting the views of the individuals that decided to take the survey(hence, high probability sqewed results as more informed, interested or individuals that have a "positive" opinion of the topic at hand might have been more likely to participate in said survey).

The dangers, as well as the drawbacks, of non nationally representative samples have been highlighted by many researchers:

https://bullseyers.com/how-to-avoid-unrepresentative-sample-in-your-research/

https://statmodeling.stat.columbia.edu/2013/09/04/does-it-matter/

Although the researchers of the scientific study above utilised nationally representative samples, they only did so in regards to two countries, in particular United Kingdom and Poland.

However, just because something might be correct for the landscape of the United Kingdom, it does not necessarily mean that it holds true for the rest of the world as well.

It might have been that "Feminists" or "Progressives" in general were more likely to take part in the survey, even if they did not identify with the "Feminist" label.

And since the same survey has not been repeated in other nations by utilising nationally representative samples, we cannot just infer the results from the United Kingdom as "gospel truth" for the rest of the world.

Finally, it should be noted they poorly attempted to disprove the allegation that "Feminists" hate men, by claiming that since "Feminists" reported largely "positive" and "warm" feelings towards men, then we must assume that "Feminists" are not "Misandrists".

However again, they conveniently glossed over the fact that self-identified "Feminists" were significantly more likely to view men as a "threat".

Imagine if one made the same statements about any other group of people, such as Blacks and Muslims.

Imagine if a researcher claimed that since most of the individuals that took their survey reported "positive" feelings towards Blacks and Muslims, even though they also stated they perceive them as a "threat" or as "scary", then Racism and Islamophobia do not actually exist.

Whether the "Feminist" movement also includes men as they researchers above claimed, I would rather leave it up for everyone else to decide.

But still, if you want to advance the assumption that your political movement is not actually characterised by bigotry(because let's just he honest here, nobody wants to admit they are a bigot, in lieu of the popular statements such as "I am not a Homophobe, but", "I am not a Racist, but" or the favourite of many, "I am not a Racist, I have Black friends!")and this all comes down to general slandering, misrepresentations and misconceptions about your political movement, that is not exactly how you conduct scientific research.

Has anyone else here read that scientific study?

Any debunkings and counterarguments offered?

Looking forward to your responses.