So, I found myself thinking about the usual feminist consensus around the phenomenon of Patriarchy, which - if I understood well - basically revolves around these three claims:

  • patriarchy exists, and is at the roots of our society;

  • patriarchy is a social construct brought by cultural dynamics;

  • patriarchy has been developed indipendently in every culture around the world, and lasts to this day.

Let's not question the assumptions themselves, but, wouldn't a system based on these three assumptions kind of lack internal coherence?

IF patriarchy does indeed exist and IF it is a mere product of culture instead of biology:

why would every single culture around the world have indipendently ended up into a patriarchal system? Wouldn't it instead provide for proof that if it does exist as it is claimed, it must be the consequence of human biology rather than culture?

(I understand it's a question I maybe should have posed in some feminist subreddit instead... but hopefully here I can get some response other than the good ol' "gtfo bigot", since I'm genuinely curious and interested.)