Hello PPD, I have come to test the wisdom of both sides by asking you all the answer to the following conundrum:

Assume two individuals had been dating for many years, and had great, mutually orgasmic and fulfilling sex about 2 times per day.

Once they got married, one partner began to want sex less than before, and once they had their first child, that same partner cut sex off almost entirely. What had been 2 hot sex sessions per day, trickles down to grudging, tepid vanilla sex once or twice a month.

The other partner, who still longs for the intimacy and connection (and most of all, the sex) they used to enjoy, does everything reasonably in his or her power to fix the issue. From concerned and honest talks, to arranging babysitters/having date nights and helping with chores, to going to doctors, therapists and marriage counselors together. If RP, you can assume this includes using "dread game" and other RP mindgames to achieve the intended result.

Nothing brings any lasting change, and although they exhibit some degree of effort, the withholding partner still only allows sex to happen once or twice a month, and with minimal passion. This despite the fact that the other partner's behavior and general "performance" as a partner has remained reasonably consistent over time.

After how much time, if ever, is the partner who still wants to have a sex life justified in pursuing the "last ditch" option that is divorce? Has anything in the withholding partner's behavior violated their marriage vows? If not the vows themselves, is there any "unspoken agreement" relevant to this situation? Which partner, if any, would be to blame for a divorce if it happened? Which partner would be more likely to be seen as "in the wrong" by friends, family and society?