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The American Bar Association: Men Accused of Rape Should Be Guilty Until Proven Innocent in Court

cevits76

August 10, 2019
222 upvotes
/r/MensRights

Link to the article :

https://brasspills.com/the-american-bar-association-men-accused-of-rape-should-be-guilty-until-proven-innocent-in-court/

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Title The American Bar Association: Men Accused of Rape Should Be Guilty Until Proven Innocent in Court
Author

cevits76

Upvotes 222
Comments 49
Date August 10, 2019 5:25 PM UTC
(6 years ago)
Subreddit Posted in /r/MensRights
Original Link https://old.reddit.com/r/MensRights/comments/cokwaj/the_american_bar_association_men_accused_of_rape/
Archive Link https://theredarchive.com/r/MensRights/the-american-bar-association-men-accused-of-rape.871450
https://theredarchive.com/post/871450
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Comments

[–]toughtchya 91 points92 points93 points 6 years ago (15 children) | Copy Link

This is frightening. Title 9 for the country

[–]cevits76[S] 53 points54 points55 points 6 years ago (1 child) | Copy Link

what do you expect from lawyers, more business for them.

[–][deleted] 29 points30 points31 points 6 years ago (10 children) | Copy Link

It's not as frightening as you think because it also means that any woman who accuses a man of sexual assault can herself be accused of sexual assault. There's no law that says an accuser can't also be simultaneously accused, the burden of proof has to be identical across scenarios and it's up to the police to disprove in that situation. This means that when she says you raped her, your defense can always be that of claiming she raped you - you're not required to prove it if she's not. Likewise, consensual drunk sex between a man and a woman now means both are legally rapists as neither have evidence of the other "affirmatively consenting". That's equality!

​

Now, if a false accusation where no sex has occurred in the first place is filed, you also have a simple way to defend it when she lacks evidence: "I am unaware of any sex occurring, if any intercourse has taken place without my knowledge, at any time, it has occurred without my affirmative consent. Therefore, if she's claiming she had sex with me and has proof of this, then that's evidence of her raping me, not the other way around".

​

Yeah... great lawmakers, amirite?

[–]RoryTate 24 points25 points26 points 6 years ago (4 children) | Copy Link

It's not as frightening as you think because it also means that any woman who accuses a man of sexual assault can herself be accused of sexual assault.

In practice what happens then is that whoever accuses the other first is the only accusation that matters. The other claim is considered to be "motivated by revenge". As is shown in current Title IX situations, there is a "rush to the Title IX office" after a night of drunken sex by both parties just to protect themselves. And since the majority of accusers are female, this law is strongly biased aganst men, even if its language is gender neutral.

[–][deleted] 5 points6 points7 points 6 years ago (3 children) | Copy Link

Unlike with Title IX which uses a very weak civil standard, the "motivated by revenge" theory has to be positively proven for criminal cases, evidence has to show that it fits. Also unlike with Title IX, any evidence she has given under penalty of perjury becomes your evidence to use against her, therefore her own testimony needs to account for proving you had affirmed your consent but she didn't.

Just as she is assumed to be telling the truth due to the penalty of perjury, it is also legally assumed until proven otherwise that you're telling the truth for the same reason. Criminal law doesn't care about who accused who first either. Therefore, you have every right to claim you never gave affirmed consent and therefore, by definition, you were raped - any standard that requires proof for you to prove innocence would require identical proof from her end. All this change in definition has done is to make it more likely than the accused will now accuse the accuser of rape on the same basis.

Also, the change doesn't transfer the burden of proof on to the accused, it simply changes the statements a man has to make to be able to claim the sex is consensual. The actual document is literally a recommendation that says the accused has to claim that positive overt actions or words were spoken to indicate consent. It's still the alleged victims job to prove those actions/words never took place beyond a reasonable doubt!

[–]RoryTate 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (1 child) | Copy Link

Also unlike with Title IX, any evidence she has given under penalty of perjury becomes your evidence to use against her, therefore her own testimony needs to account for proving you had affirmed your consent but she didn't.

I'm not sure what may or may not happen in a court of law, and I do agree that they would operate somewhat differently than a university kangaroo star chamber. However, if her description of the sexual encounter describes the man as being the one who initiated the particular sexual activity, that would automatically indicate consent on the man's part. So she wouldn't have to account for consent like you suggest. That would be assumed since almost all of male-female sexual relations is the man acting upon the woman in some default way. As such, I honestly can't see it ending up being equally unfair for both men and women as you suggest.

For example, if she says "He placed his penis in my mouth, and I didn't agree to that activity", can he just say back "She placed her mouth around my penis, and I didn't agree to that activity"? I imagine the court would interpret any written law by placing a default or automatic consent on the person who received the most pleasure in the activity. Female hypoagency and male hyperagency would also have a significant influence on how a judge or jury settled that type of disagreement, and any such decision would largely go in the favour of the woman, I would think.

[–][deleted] 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

In response, one could say: “She opened her mouth widely as she went down on me, then said ‘ahhhhh’ like you would at a dentist. How else could that possibly be interpreted?” (I am not a lawyer but the standards for proof beyond a reasonable doubt are quite clear.)

She then has to either disprove what he’s saying or justify why her actions don’t qualify as overtly demonstrating consent. The proposed change says overt words or actions need to be made to indicate consent but does not state consent needs to be made directly and in an explicit manner.

Also, first off, she would have to make a statement to the effect of what you said, then she’d need to make her statements available to the defence long before the trial. The best defence a man has is ‘no comment’ until his lawyer can look at the evidence his client possesses, prior to deciding whether to disclose it prior to discovery. Remember that the prosecution has to pretty much make their case available ahead of time to the defence, providing full access to all evidence that’s going to be used without redaction. That means the accusers entire phone conversations, internet history and private messaging are all fair game for the defence in discovery if even only a tiny smidgen of evidence from her phone was ever used by the police. Failure by the prosecution to disclose everything in the event that the defendant finds even the smallest thing on their own phone that should be on the victims phone too can result in the case failing at trial due to the prosecution not carrying out their duty correctly. That’s powerful and it discredits a lot of cases before they even begin.

Anyway, a list of things that would still be valid as part of a defence if making a statement that contradicts hers:

  • Text messages or IM records from the accuser to the defendant or others where she implies consent was given that night
  • Social media chats where she compliments the defendant to others immediately following the incident
  • Openly consensual interactions which happened after the alleged rape but do not differ meaningfully to the act which took place
  • Evidence that the accused was not legally capable of consenting while the accuser still was
  • A recording of the sex act itself, whether in audio or video form, with or without permission, where consent is indicated
  • Historical false accusations, including proven cases of perjury or prior criminal convictions involving deception
  • Witness statements of those who saw the act in question who describe affirmative consent being given through overt actions or words

[–]tenchineuro 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Just as she is assumed to be telling the truth due to the penalty of perjury, it is also legally assumed until proven otherwise that you're telling the truth for the same reason.

Yes, we aways jail the innocent, sometimes leaving them there for months before the trial if there is no bail or bail can't be raised, investigate his friends, family and workplace to make sure everyone knows he's accused of rape, and we always publish the names of the assumed innocent, like the rape accuser, no wait. The legal system does everything possible to destroy the man even if no charges are laid, much less requiring a conviction. Meanwhile the state pays all expenses regarding the woman, often including victims compensation and if she committed a crime, well, that all seems to be forgotten in the wash.

Equality under the law you say? Really?

[–]tenchineuro 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (4 children) | Copy Link

It's not as frightening as you think because it also means that any woman who accuses a man of sexual assault can herself be accused of sexual assault.

Theoretically you can do so today. Good luck getting the police to take a report, and even if they do the DA won't do anything. The sole exception today is when women statutorily rape minor boys, but the women usually receive suspended sentences even then.

In a deathmatch between theory and reality, I wonder who would win?

[–][deleted] 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (3 children) | Copy Link

If the case is already open from a woman claiming to have been raped they can’t refuse to investigate your claims, doing so would jeopardise the case similar to if a prosecutor fails to provide exculpatory evidence. You can both claim to be the victim and the law forces them to accept both sets of claims. It’s as simple as that.

[–]tenchineuro 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (2 children) | Copy Link

jeopardise the case similar to if a prosecutor fails to provide exculpatory evidence.

I've never seen a prosecutor punished for doing so. In the UK it was official policy until it came out in the Liam Allen case. And even then, no one was punished. I suggest that due to the fact that it's a simple thing for the prosecutor to do and there's no comeback even if it's discovered, that it happens a lot more than we know. After all, the conviction record is all that matters, right?

You can both claim to be the victim and the law forces them to accept both sets of claims. It’s as simple as that.

In theory perhaps, but I doubt you can provide one example of it happening in reality.

[–][deleted] 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (1 child) | Copy Link

That’s because standards haven’t previously been at the stage for a rape case where it’s a better way to go. But in assault cases, people are always accusing the accuser and it forces the police to mess around to get to the truth.

[–]tenchineuro 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

That’s because standards haven’t previously been at the stage for a rape case where it’s a better way to go.

Rape is not handled like any other crime though. Rape shield laws rather make sure things are one-sided.

But in assault cases, people are always accusing the accuser and it forces the police to mess around to get to the truth.

Women often accuse the men they raped that if they go to the police they will claim he raped her. Guess what, the police and DA and will be happy to go with that. When Lorena Bobbit (a feminist heroine today) did the deed, John Bobbit was tried for rape first, and I'm pretty certain that had he been found guilty Lorena would never have stood trial.

[–][deleted] 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Right up to the point they start to accuse lawyers of sexual misconduct. Then they start flipping sides.

[–]Jock53 11 points12 points13 points 6 years ago (2 children) | Copy Link

Fuck yeah! Everything is the fault of men, especially straight, white ones, so have at it. Why even bother with a trial just jail the fuckers and move on. Wimmin are innocent of everything by default and would never lie about anything. Any male who disagrees is a misogynist fuckpig and should be gelded.

[–]Tis4Tru 1 point2 points3 points 6 years ago (1 child) | Copy Link

Imma just hope this a sarcasm

[–]Jock53 4 points5 points6 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Yes sir, well spotted. :-)

[–]Lion_amongst_gods 23 points24 points25 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Is it possible to sue the bar association? For attempting to ruin the foundation of the justice system?

[–]Electroverted 14 points15 points16 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

This is what happens when you let SJWs into anything.

[–]cosmickalamity 7 points8 points9 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

So now not only will their entire life be ruined by a mere accusation, but the majority of innocents will now end up in jail. Awesome. As a 13 year old I’m scared to grow up in this society ngl

[–]ullnvrkillobamacare 6 points7 points8 points 6 years ago (3 children) | Copy Link

Found the original text from the ABA. https://www.americanbar.org/content/dam/aba/administrative/house_of_delegates/resolutions/2019-midyear/2019-midyear-115.pdf

In my opinion, this proposal is a mixed bag. The positive side of it is that it encourages legislatures to redefine rape as "sexual contact" rather than only penetration. That change would give men greater protection than the current, flawed definitions.

However, the concerns in the articles are valid. The claim that the accused would have to have documented proof of consent is overstated but somewhat true. It would force the judge to make a statement that lends credibility to the accusation, which would bias the jury. Without proof of consent, I think a lot of people could be falsely convicted.

[–]jp_mra 1 point2 points3 points 6 years ago (2 children) | Copy Link

"sexual contact"

Very ambiguous term. Not good. Penetration, or forced to penetrate, is binary and not ambiguous.

[–]ullnvrkillobamacare 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (1 child) | Copy Link

I don't understand why ambiguous would be bad. Wouldn't unwanted sexual contact cover FTP?

[–]jp_mra 1 point2 points3 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

"He touched my shoulder and it felt sexual to me. Rape!"

Also, a simple kiss on the forehead, even if unwanted, shouldn't be punished the same as actual rape.

[+]user94601 points 6 years ago* [recovered] (14 children) | Copy Link

What an utterly misleading headline. That's not what its saying at all. All this says is that rape shouldn't require you to fight or say stop (whether you agree with that is a separate issue). The headline is straight up lying or misinterpreting that the burden of proof is shifting to the accused proving their innocence.

[–]mRechter 5 points6 points7 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

THANK YOU!

Too many people here don't seem to get this. The accuser will still have to prove that they didn't consent in either words or actions.

[–]Demonspawn 5 points6 points7 points 6 years ago (12 children) | Copy Link

The headline is straight up lying or misinterpreting that the burden of proof is shifting to the accused proving their innocence.

So... guilty until proven innocent?

Oh, strange, that's exactly what the headline says!

[+]user94601 points 6 years ago* [recovered] (11 children) | Copy Link

...no, not even close. To be frank, if you think that a change like that is shifting the burden of proof, you have absolutely no understanding of what the concept entails.

[–]Demonspawn 2 points3 points4 points 6 years ago (10 children) | Copy Link

It absolutely is.

Now the defense has to prove consent rather than the prosecutors proving non-consent, because consent is no longer assumed.

It's right there in black and white.

[+]user94601 points 6 years ago* [recovered] (9 children) | Copy Link

... no lol. Brother, listen to an attorney telling you that (1) this does not shift the burden of proof; (2) this is a suggestion by the aba which has no authority to issue any rules for attorneys, let alone actual legislation.

You're right it is black and white, but you clearly are lacking in the knowledge base to understand it.

[–]Demonspawn 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (8 children) | Copy Link

this does not shift the burden of proof;

It absolutely does.

this is a suggestion by the aba which has no authority to issue any rules for attorneys, let alone actual legislation.

I never made that claim.

[–][deleted] 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (7 children) | Copy Link

Jesus christ man, you are the embodiment of the Dunning–Kruger effect.

[–]Demonspawn 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (6 children) | Copy Link

Then please explain to the idiot how removing the requirement that the prosecution does not need to prove non-consent ("to reject any requirement that sexual assault victims have a legal burden of verbal or physical resistance") does not become that the defense must prove consent.

Go ahead.... please.

[–][deleted] 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (5 children) | Copy Link

Then please explain to the idiot how removing the requirement that the prosecution does not need to prove non-consent

Lol because that not what it does. Non consent is still am element, it's just the element would not require physical struggle or literally telling someone to stop (which I belevie is already the case in most jurisdictions, but don't quote me on that). That isnt even related to the burden of proof. You're so lost and out of your depth, I barely even know how to respond to you. Its embarrassing dude.

Lets try this by way of example: you get drugged by someone and they start having sex with your almost unconscious body. That's rape. You shouldn't have to say stop or fight them for that to be considered rape. When that person is put on trial for rape, the ABA's opinion is that the prosecution, while proving all the elements of rape (e.g. sexual intercourse, non-consent...) should not have to show an element of struggle or saying "stop," which you didn't do because you were drugged.

[–]Demonspawn 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (4 children) | Copy Link

But the core issue here is that they are suggesting removing the requirement that the accuser have done anything to indicate non-consent. And that removal doesn't require drugs being involved so take your stupid strawman elsewhere. So yes it does shift the burden of proof to the accused that consent was there.

Try a normal example and see how that doesn't shift the burden of proof.

[–]Jackson2615 1 point2 points3 points 6 years ago (1 child) | Copy Link

This goes against the basic principle of law in western democracies. Perhaps in addition the ABA could advocate for,

Lawyers Accused of misconduct Should Be Guilty Until Proven Innocent in Court

[–]MalusMalorum 1 point2 points3 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

To be fair, it says "words or action". But it runs into either of two problems. A) Both parties give different accounts of what words or action were present, thus we usually just end up with the same situation and nothing is gained. B) We end up putting the word of the alleged victim over that of the defendant and then we really do have guilty until proven innocent because then, the weighing of the evidence STARTS in favor of guilt.

It just honestly is per definition a pretty mess if the only difference between a normal sexual encounter and a case of rape lies within the participants mind. We cannot play mind readers in court!

[–]genkernels 1 point2 points3 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Wow, that's an incredible misinterpretation of the (still somewhat troubling) resolution from the APA.

[–]TheBaredBodkin 1 point2 points3 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Just avoid relationships with women. There is nothing else to say or discuss.

[–]-Dragonhawk1029- 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

How unfortunate. That they now need to clarify this RIGHT that everybody has. Sad.

[–]aussietoads 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Seems like a good time to accuse all the lawyers involved in the drafting of this BS, of rape. After all, they are raping the whole notion of justice.

[–]Demonspawn 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Let's apply this to anything else.

For example, let's say you need 5 dollars. So you ask your co-worker Joe for 5 dollars. Joe fishes out 5 bucks and hands it to you.

You have now stolen from Joe because Joe never said yes.

All this because, apparently, women are too infantile to learn how to say "no".

[–]jp_mra 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Because its misogyny to expect the woman to be strong enough to utter the simple word 'no' or resist in any manner.

[–]Egalitarianwhistle 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

The discussion is so gendered. I they want to define it this way the best response is for men to accuse.every woman who has ex with them but doesnt ask for consent of rape.

Rape accusations should be a two edged sword. They are not because the stigma is gendered. Female genitals are sacred. Male genitals are not.

[–][deleted] 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Yeah that is fucked up and no they should not do that wtf

[–]ALTSuzzxingcoh 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

It doesn't, OP.

https://www.americanbar.org/content/dam/aba/directories/policy/annual-2019/114-annual-2019.pdf

RESOLVED, That the American Bar Association urges legislatures and courts to define consent in sexual assault cases as the assent of a person who is competent to give consent to engage in a specific act of sexual penetration, oral sex, or sexual contact, to provide that consent is expressed by words or action in the context of all the circumstances, and to reject any requirement that sexual assault victims have a legal burden of verbal or physical resistance.

[–]dexfagcasul -1 points0 points1 point 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

Mods should lock this, such an intentionally misleading title

[–]vermin311 0 points1 point2 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

There's alot to unpack here. So they're deciding that the "victim" in the situation no longer has to provide evidence that she resisted or said no, because an absense of those things doesn't mean it wasn't rape.

This may not sound bad at first. HOWEVER, they are essentially stating that if the victim give any signals that it wasn't consentual or wasn't under coercion in any way, she still could could have been raped. That does, in a way, push the blame onto men, because in that situation it completely comes down to the nonverbal cues. And men simply cannot read the minds of what women are thinking.

In this scenario, if sex is obviously consensual due to nonverbal communication, and the women claims it is rape, then that means the man is automatically guilty. As just because she didn't give ANY signal whatsoever as to tell the man's advances to stop, doesn't mean it wasn't rape. So now the only way sex is consensual is if a man is able to illicit a "yes" from the other person. But that is not as easy as it sounds because asking "wanna have sex?" often sounds in itself quite creepy and offputing. So how is "consent" in these terms ever supposed to happen?

I am going to have to disagree with the ABA's decision because if there's miscommunication between two partners, then it goes both ways. A women needs to make it very clear in at least some way/shape/form that she doesn't want sex to happen. It's not much to ask that be done on their part. After that point, it would be rape. Otherwise, you can't entirely rely on body language because it's too complicated: you may be sending the wrong signals and not even realize it. But it's not fair to the man to have to determine whether your body language was legitimate or not.

[–]Akesgeroth -5 points-4 points-3 points 6 years ago (0 children) | Copy Link

If legislatures adopt this standard, imagine making out with your girlfriend, going to the bedroom, having sex and then the next day, being accused of rape. Then when you protest that she didn’t struggle or say “no” or do anything to let you know the sex is unwanted, you’re told THAT DOESN’T MATTER.

That does not remove the burden of proof. All it does is say that consent needs to be explicitly given. Meaning "She didn't say no" isn't an argument anymore, which it shouldn't be.

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