The Illogical Conundrum of Consent, and Conception

Preface: I'm a proponent for Freedom of Choice, and Bodily Autonomy.

Take two parties. They go on a date. Dinner. Drinks. One party gets drunk, the other party not so much. Sex occurs. Conception follows.

Question 1: At what point is consent a factor? Pre-inebriation? Post? Pre-coitus? Post? Is consent a factor all the way to conception? Post?

Question 2: At what point post conception does the more inebriated person either have, or not have responsibility for the decision? For the outcome?

The pivotal difference in this commonly occurring hypothetical is sex. Interchange sexes. Are the rights of both parties equal? If not, should they be? Is the issue consent? Does one or both parties consent to sex only, with the potential of conception? Or not? What if one party cannot, or does not consent? Does this factor influence the outcome? Should it?

I stand by my previous post, and the other recent post on this. The primary reason is post conception, consent is only a factor for one party. Especially in context to something so potentially life altering. That’s not Equality. If you think it is, please share why.

Godspeed and good luck!