After all, if the performances of a business that a man created are by definition 50% due to his wife, thus granting her 50% of its value during divorce, then if the business leaves a large debt by the same rule these performances are 50% due to the woman and she should be liable for half the debt after a divorce.

Or are women responsible for 50% of creating the man's business, if it has plus 1 million, but suddenly 0% responsible for creating that business when it has minus 1 million?

A case from the news made me wonder.