Redpillers who say Marital Rape doesn't exist usually make some claim that a wife is obligated to fulfill her husband's sexual needs, But when that explanation doesn't suffice they leave. So while thinking about it more than I should I came up with two possible thought processes to explain why someone might say marital rape doesn't exist. So if any of you RedPillers are in the "No Such Thing as Marital Rape" Camp, you should know this is how we see you. The following examples are written in the context of the rapist as a husband and the victim as his wife.

A No man would ever force himself on his wife. Marital Rape is a term feminists use to describe when a woman obliges to her husband's needs despite not being in the mood herself.

B There is absolutely no circumstance in which a woman has a right to refuse to have sex with her husband so even if he physically forces himself on his resistant wife, she has no right to say she was raped. If he is especially violent then maybe he should be charged with assault and battery but the sex part of the assault should remain out of the charges because they are married, and marriage is in part a sex contract.

So if I'm off base please let me know what the real reason is, and if this opinion is a fringe opinion that you don't agree with I'm interested in hearing that as well. Thanks for taking the time to read this post.