I've never understood the drive to treat violent disputes between heterosexual spouses as having some special socio-political significance not shared by other types of violent disputes. Furthermore, if a man beats his wife or a woman beats her husband, I don't see that as gender violence by default (and I don't see how separating out "gender violence" from violence in general helps or solves anything, to be honest). Why can't we assume that a heterosexual person beating their partner has a problem with that particular person who happens to be of the opposite sex or gender and not with the sex or gender in question as a whole?

I see it as a violent person taking out frustrations on the person nearest and closest to them, who just happens to be of the opposite sex or gender based on the sexual preferences of those involved. I suspect the same people who beat their spouses would beat their parents or siblings if they lived with them instead.

Is there any rational justification at all for treating inter-partner violence as having any special socio-political significance beyond the two individuals involved? I've never seen any. It seems to me that it is simply accepted as a truism in feminist circles as a way to further pathologize men. Do feminists really believe that a man who beats his wife hates all women and would have been a wonderful partner if he had been gay but otherwise the same in every way?

Also, if domestic violence really were gender violence, wouldn't we expect men who beat their wives to also regularly beat their mothers, sisters, etc., and somehow avoid violence with the men in their lives?