I see amongst friends and peers all to often, lack of sex in a relationship, then the subsequent death of said relationship. Generally this happens after marriage, so the joke has always been amongst my peers - " what turns off a woman faster than anything else? --- wedding cake!" My question to the community is this - if the wife turns off the sex, say for months or maybe it's even been up to a year or more, should it be ok for the man to revoke committment? . . . I think we know if the reverse equation were true, it wouldn't take more than one time for the woman to revoke sex. ( And most likely this would be permanent). . . . I know in marriage or even an LTR there are other factors to include other than the sex for commitment trade that occurs in most hetero relationships. Meeting other needs in a relationship is important too, so let's say all in all in this hypothetical all other needs are being met. Also this brings up the question is commitment an equal trade for sex? And if so how might you quantify commitment compared to sex?