Previously, I'd only been vaguely aware of Red Pill as a thing and didn't know much about it (so apologies in advance if this is an ignorant question)...but I read through the terms and short forms on this subreddit and it made me genuinely curious about something.

If a woman is bisexual, would men overall have relatively low sexual market value? Considering the orgasm gap in heterosexual sex, and the higher odds of experiencing violence or sexual assault with a male partner, doesn't that make men a (generally) less desirable and more risky option for sex...and therefore of low sexual market value?

Edit: Thank you for the responses! I think the jist of my reason for the question is me trying to wrap my head around Red Pill philosophy and lingo by posing the hypothetical that popped into my brain. I wasn't sure if my logic would track based on what I read about RP in this group's About section or if some other aspect of RP philosophy would invalidate my conclusion (ex. maybe heterosexual sex is viewed as intrinsically more valuable and therefore cancels out the plusses and minuses mentioned above? - I don't know...I don't hang around a ton of straight people, lol).

Edit 2: Sorry, for clarification, I'm asking about sexual value, not relationship value.