If you believe misogyny is a powerful force in western society, please speculate about why such an aberration was not killed by natural selection.

So my own personal belief is that actual misogyny is a mental illness which is probably not detectable in more than 1% of the population. Roughly along the same order of magnitude as schizophrenia.

But if you believe that a significant portion (say at least 20% of people) are affected by this, isn't that an interesting outcome?

Why would misogyny not be removed by evolution as a maladaptive trait? Even if you were to prove the prevalence of misogyny beyond all doubt, that still would leave the huge puzzle as to why it ever came to be in the first place.

So, believers in a) evolution, b) generalized societal misogyny: explain how that evolved, please.