The way I see it, there are two ways to argue against Red Pill (and most other things) : instrumental and moral.

Instrumental amounts to saying that this thing just doesn't work. That red pill won't get you laid. That Alpha/Beta dichotomy just does not describe reality.

Moral is saying that red pill is immoral. That it is for some reason wrong to act in a way prescribed by red pill community.

Many people mix moral and instrumental arguments by saying that red pill works only on stupid, damaged or superficial women, not the kind one actually wants to attract. So women it attracts are a bad catch (instrumental argument) and damaged so it would be immoral to take advantage of them.

Lets assume (just for the sake of the argument) that Red Pill at least sort of works and focus on purely moral case. How can you prove that it would be wrong to use it?

There was a discussion that I only heard second hand where a conservative stated that employer has a right to pay his employees the smallest amount he knows they will accept. Liberal argued back that employee has a right to work as little as he can that he knows won't get fired for. Reportedly, conservative was livid. How DARES someone to argue that employees can be lazy? Employees should always put in 100% regardless of anything. (Again I have heard this second hand so it might not be recalled accurately)

This is basically what I think is going on with this red pill thing. Feminists keep saying that women owe men nothing and that they can chose whomever they want to screw with. Okay, but Red Pill says that men are in the right to pursue any (legal) sexual strategy that is most likely to get them laid. And, like a conservative from my analogy, women are livid. But why? Why can one say that women owe men nothing and then act shocked when men decide they owe women nothing?